I believe the taxes are prorated at the time of closing. So you would each be responsible for a portion of the taxes.
In a normal closing, the seller will give the buyer the prorated taxes for the time he owned it during the year. However, he will not actually give the buyer money in his hand. It is known I believe as a buyers incentive and appears as money off the closing costs or off the contract price. On the closing statement, it is actually written as prorated taxes from January to whatever month was sold and you can see it written on your statement. At the end of the year, or November when the tax bill arrives, the buyer takes the "virtual" money he received, money he never got actually in his hand, and he takes hi own money and pays the entire tax bill. If he escrow his taxes and the bill is presented to his mortgage company, he can expect the whole bill to be presented and paid. So sink enough into escrow people. Sara in houston
You and the seller should have discussed in closing how much of the taxes you both are responsible for. That is not up to TAD or the Tax office.
Short answer... it depends. Without specifics on the date of filling and if the property is a split of an existing account an exact answer cans be given. I'd recommend detailing the specifics in a call to the property records department of TAD to get an answer for your situation.
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